Mathematical Food for Thought

 
 
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    Serves a Daily Special and an All-You-Can-Eat Course in Problem Solving. Courtesy of me, Jeffrey Wang.
 
Mass Production. Topic: Inequalities. Level: Olympiad. February 28th, 2006

Problem: (2000 IMO – #2) Let a, b, c be positive real numbers so that abc=1. Prove that

\left( a-1+\frac 1b \right) \left( b-1+\frac 1c \right) \left( c-1+\frac 1a \right) \leq 1.

Solution: The standard trick to solve the condition  abc = 1 is to substitute

 a = \frac{x}{y},  b = \frac{y}{z},  c = \frac{z}{x}

for positive reals  x, y, z (their existence is guaranteed since it’s a three-variable system with three equations).

Our inequality reduces to

 \left(\frac{x+z-y}{y}\right)\left(\frac{y+x-z}{z}\right)\left(\frac{z+y-x}{x}\right) \le 1 .

Multiplying through by  xyz , expanding, and rearranging everything to the RHS, we have

 0 \le x^3+y^3+z^3-x^2y-x^2z-y^2z-y^2x-z^2x-z^2y+3xyz

or

 0 \le x(x-y)(x-z)+y(y-z)(y-x)+z(z-x)(z-y) ,

which is just Schur’s Inequality, so the result is proved. QED.

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Comment: The condition  abc = 1 almost always calls for the substitution above. It also works with  abc \ge 1 in which case you simply have another variable multiplied by each of the terms.

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Practice Problem: Go take the 2006 Mock AIME 5 below.

Legend of Max. Topic: Inequalities. Level: Olympiad. February 27th, 2006

Problem: (1999 USAMO – #4) Let a_{1}, a_{2}, \ldots, a_{n} (n > 3) be real numbers such that

a_{1} + a_{2} + \cdots + a_{n} \geq n \qquad and \qquad a_{1}^{2} + a_{2}^{2} + \cdots + a_{n}^{2} \geq n^{2}.

Prove that \max(a_{1}, a_{2}, \ldots, a_{n}) \geq 2.

Solution: To simply things, let  x_i = 2-a_i . We wish to show that there exists an  x_i \le 0 .

Our conditions become

 (2-x_1)+(2-x_2)+\cdots+(2-x_n) \ge n \Rightarrow x_1+x_2+\cdots+x_n \le n .

 (2-x_1)^2+(2-x_2^2)+\cdots+(2-x_n)^2 \ge n^2 .

Assume for the sake of contradiction that  x_i > 0 for all  i and let  x_1+x_2+\cdots+x_n = k \le n . We have

 (2-x_1)^2+(2-x_2)^2+\cdots+(2-x_n^2) = (x_1^2+x_2^2+\cdots+x_n^2) – 4(x_1+x_2+\cdots+x_n)+4n \ge n^2 , or

 (x_1^2+x_2^2+\cdots+x_n^2) – 4(x_1+x_2+\cdots+x_n) \ge n^2-4n .

But we have  x_1^2+x_2^2+\cdots+x_n^2 < (x_1+x_2+\cdots+x_n)^2 = k^2 , so

 (x_1^2+x_2^2+\cdots+x_n^2) - 4(x_1+x_2+\cdots+x_n) < k^2-4k .

However, since  n \ge k and  n \ge 4 , we have  n^2-4n \ge k^2-4k (looking at the parabola it is easy to see;  x^2-4x has zeros at  x = 0, 4 ). Therefore

 (x_1^2+x_2^2+\cdots+x_n^2) - 4(x_1+x_2+\cdots+x_n) < k^2-4k \le n^2-4n .

But we also had

 (x_1^2+x_2^2+\cdots+x_n^2) - 4(x_1+x_2+\cdots+x_n) \ge n^2-4n ,

so that gives us a contradiction. Hence our assumption must be false and there exists an  x_i \le 0 \Rightarrow a_i \ge 2 as desired. QED.

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Comment: This wasn't a particularly difficult inequality, but it has some key ideas. Using all parts of the question is important (in this case  n > 3 is actually relevant). Another note is that this didn’t really require any of the classical inequalities, just algebraic manipulation. Lastly, the crucial step was setting converting the real  a_i to positive  x_i which makes things a whole lot nicer.

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Practice Problem: Go take the 2006 Mock AIME 5 below.

2006 Mock AIME 5. February 27th, 2006

Here’s the 2006 Mock AIME 5, prepared by me.

Rules are the same as usual, go to AoPS if you want to discuss the problems. 3 hours, no calculators, all answers are integers from 000-999, inclusive. Have fun!

2006 Mock AIME 5

Posted in AIME || No Comments »
Linkage. Topic: NT/Sequences and Series. Level: Olympiad. February 26th, 2006

Problem: (2002 USAMO – #5) Let a,b be integers greater than 2. Prove that there exists a positive integer k and a finite sequence n_1, n_2, \ldots, n_k of positive integers such that n_1 = a, n_k = b, and n_i n_{i+1} is divisible by n_i + n_{i+1} for each i (1 \leq i < k).

Solution: Call two integers a and b "linked" if there exists a sequence as described in the question (note that two integers are always mutually linked; just reverse the sequence). We wish to show that all integers a,b > 2 are linked. If we can show that m and m+1 are linked for any integer m > 2 in a finite number of terms (links), the problem is solved. Consider the following sequence:

m, m(m-1), m(m-1)(m-2), 2m(m-1), 2m(m+1), m(m+1)(m-1), m(m+1), m+1,

which can easily be shown to satisfy the property in the question. Thus m and m+1 are always linked for m > 2. Hence, by induction, any integers a, b > 2 are linked (assuming WLOG a<b, we have  a linked to  a+1 , then  a+2 , etc.), as desired. QED.

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Comment: The proof of this, when presented, is very short. In actuality, this problem took quite a while to solve; first to figure out to try and link consecutive integers and then to actually find the link. Playing around with the numbers eventually gave the right sequence.

Power Hungry. Topic: NT/Sequences and Series. Level: Olympiad. February 25th, 2006

Problem: (2005 IMO – #4) Determine all positive integers relatively prime to all the terms of the infinite sequence

 a_n=2^n+3^n+6^n -1,\ n\geq 1 .

Solution: We claim that the only such integer is  1 . Consider any prime  p > 3 and the term  a_{p-2} . We have

 a_{p-2} = 2^{p-2}+3^{p-2}+6^{p-2}-1 = \frac{2^{p-1}}{2}+\frac{3^{p-1}}{3}+\frac{6^{p-1}}{6}-1 ,

which, by taking a common denominator and factoring, becomes

 a_{p-2} = \frac{(2^{p-1}+2)(3^{p-1}+3)-12}{6} .

But by Fermat’s Little Theorem, we have  2^{p-1} \equiv 3^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p} , so

 a_{p-2} \equiv \frac{(1+2)(1+3)-12}{6} \equiv 0 \pmod{p} .

So we have shown that  p|a_{p-2} for all primes  p > 3 . Noting that  a_2 = 48 , which is divisible by both  2 and  3 , we have that every positive integer divisible by a prime is not relatively prime to all terms in the sequence (since at least one term is divisible by every prime). Hence the only possible number is  1 , as claimed. QED.

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Comment: The quickest way to find this solution was seeing that  \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6}-1 = 0 . And since multiplicative inverses always exist modulo a prime, the term  a_{p-2} is divisible by  p .

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